HESI RN
Leadership HESI
1. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?
- A. Only when feeling unwell.
- B. Only before meals.
- C. Before meals and at bedtime.
- D. Only after meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?
- A. Record urine output every hour
- B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- C. Evaluate neurological status
- D. Maintain seizure precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the highest priority intervention for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. This rare tumor can lead to life-threatening hypertension due to catecholamine secretion. Evaluating neurological status and maintaining seizure precautions are important but are not the highest priority in this case. Recording urine output, though essential for overall assessment, is not the priority compared to monitoring blood pressure in a client with pheochromocytoma.
3. A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?
- A. I knew this would happen. I've been eating too much red meat lately.
- B. I really enjoyed my fishing trip yesterday. I caught 2 fish.
- C. I have really been working hard practicing with the debate team at school.
- D. I went to the healthcare provider last week for a cold, and I have gotten worse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.
4. Which of the following is not a complication of menopause?
- A. Fractures
- B. Alzheimer's disease
- C. Congestive heart failure
- D. Painful intercourse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Congestive heart failure is not typically associated with menopause. Menopause is linked to an increased risk of fractures due to bone density loss, a higher risk of Alzheimer's disease due to hormonal changes, and painful intercourse due to vaginal dryness and thinning of tissues. While cardiovascular health can be affected by menopause, congestive heart failure is not a direct complication associated with menopause.
5. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.