HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
- A. Prominent U waves
- B. Prolonged PR interval
- C. Depressed ST segment
- D. Widened QRS complexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
2. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?
- A. 6-8 hours.
- B. 10-14 hours.
- C. 16-20 hours.
- D. 24-28 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.
3. A client with type 2 DM is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.
- D. Take the medication before bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction when taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because missing a meal does not mean the medication should be avoided; the client should still take it with the next meal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime.
4. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), there is a decrease in aldosterone levels, leading to sodium loss and potassium retention. This imbalance results in hyperkalemia, making choice B the correct answer. Hypernatremia (choice A) is unlikely due to sodium loss. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with primary adrenal insufficiency.
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