Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?

• A. Interpersonal activities
• B. Decisional activities
• C. Informational activities
• D. Transformational activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decisional activities. A nurse manager conducting evaluations and reviewing staffing needs for the future involves making decisions related to resource allocation, planning, and problem-solving. These activities fall under the category of decisional activities in management. Choice A, Interpersonal activities, would involve activities like communicating, motivating, and leading staff. Choice C, Informational activities, would involve activities like gathering and disseminating information. Choice D, Transformational activities, would involve inspiring and motivating staff to achieve organizational goals through vision and change.

4. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

5. Nurse Troy is aware that the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is:

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Excessive fluid volume
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is 'Risk for infection.' Addison's disease is characterized by corticosteroid deficiency, which leads to immune suppression, making these clients more susceptible to infections. This diagnosis reflects the increased vulnerability of clients with Addison's disease to infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with excessive fluid volume, urinary retention, or hypothermia as primary concerns.

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