a nurse caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 10 mgdl which electrocardiographic
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that indicates the brain is not receiving enough glucose, potentially leading to serious complications like unconsciousness or seizures. Immediate reporting of confusion is essential for prompt intervention to prevent worsening of hypoglycemia. Shakiness and sweating are early warning signs of hypoglycemia but may not always require immediate intervention. Increased thirst is a symptom commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

3. Albert refuses his bedtime snack. This should alert the healthcare provider to assess for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient like Albert refuses his bedtime snack, it can lead to hypoglycemia, especially if they are on medication such as insulin. Hypoglycemia can occur earlier than expected due to the lack of carbohydrate intake before bedtime. This situation warrants the healthcare provider to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the given scenario is more indicative of hypoglycemia than metabolic alkalosis. Choice C is incorrect as NPH insulin peak time is not directly related to skipping a bedtime snack. Choice D is incorrect as sugar in the urine typically indicates hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

4. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.

5. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients who have sustained traumatic burns are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia due to cell lysis. When cells are damaged in a traumatic burn, potassium can leak out from the intracellular space into the bloodstream, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Colitis, Cushing's syndrome, and overuse of laxatives are not typically associated with the same degree of cell damage or potassium shifts seen in traumatic burns, making them less likely to result in such high potassium levels.

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