Nursing Elites

1. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

2. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.

4. When caring for a male client with diabetes insipidus, what does Nurse Juliet expect to administer?

• A. Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Regular insulin
• D. 10% dextrose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). Vasopressin is the treatment of choice for diabetes insipidus as it replaces the deficient antidiuretic hormone. Furosemide (Lasix) (choice B) is a diuretic and would exacerbate fluid loss, making it inappropriate for diabetes insipidus. Regular insulin (choice C) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus, which involves water balance rather than glucose regulation. 10% dextrose (choice D) is used to treat hypoglycemia, not diabetes insipidus.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure
• B. Encourage a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

Similar Questions