a male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism this diagnosis indicates that the clients hypertension is ca
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1. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or other predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or irregular heartbeat, is crucial when a client is taking metformin. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not a common side effect of metformin. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is contrary to the intended effect of metformin, which is to lower blood glucose levels. Choice D, weight gain, is not typically associated with metformin use; in fact, metformin may even contribute to weight loss in some individuals.

3. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

4. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.

5. The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, there is a risk of significant potassium loss, leading to potential electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial in this situation to assess and manage any abnormalities promptly. Serum calcium (Choice A) is not typically affected by vomiting and diarrhea. Serum phosphorus (Choice B) levels are not commonly altered by these symptoms. Serum sodium (Choice D) may be affected in severe cases of dehydration, but potassium monitoring is a higher priority due to its potential for rapid depletion in vomiting and diarrhea.

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