Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Check blood glucose only when feeling unwell.
• B. Check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime.
• C. Check blood glucose only after meals.
• D. Check blood glucose only in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

2. A client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN's teaching to the client?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after the healthcare provider has discussed it with the client and family.
• D. A DNR requires a court decision.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A DNR order is typically written after the healthcare provider has discussed the implications with the patient and their family. This ensures that the patient and family are fully informed before making such a critical decision. Choice A is incorrect because pronouncing clinical death is a medical determination, not directly related to DNR orders. Choice B is incorrect because while physicians commonly write DNR orders, the discussion with the patient and family is crucial. Choice D is incorrect because a DNR order does not require a court decision; it is a decision made in collaboration with the healthcare team and the patient or family.

3. A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client's anxiety would be to:

• A. Administer a sedative
• B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening.
• C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear.
• D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conveying empathy, trust, and respect can help reduce the client's anxiety and improve their overall experience during treatment. This approach creates a supportive environment and fosters a sense of safety and understanding for the client. Administering a sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention for anxiety, as it does not address the underlying emotional needs of the client. Making sure the client knows all the correct medical terms (Choice B) may increase anxiety by overwhelming the client with technical information. Ignoring signs and symptoms of anxiety (Choice C) can lead to worsening distress and potential complications in the client's care.

4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

5. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

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