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1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. The nurse should instruct the client that the purpose of this medication is to:
- A. Decrease thyroid hormone production
- B. Increase thyroid hormone production
- C. Suppress the immune system
- D. Prevent thyroid storm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease thyroid hormone production. Methimazole works by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones, specifically by blocking the enzyme responsible for this process. By reducing the production of thyroid hormones, methimazole helps to normalize the elevated levels seen in hyperthyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Increase thyroid hormone production,' is inaccurate as methimazole actually decreases thyroid hormone production. Choice C, 'Suppress the immune system,' is unrelated to the mechanism of action of methimazole. Choice D, 'Prevent thyroid storm,' is not the primary purpose of methimazole; while it may help prevent worsening of hyperthyroidism, its main action is to reduce thyroid hormone levels.
2. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine. The nurse should teach the client to expect which of the following side effects?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine treatment, it often leads to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue. This occurs as a desired outcome of the treatment to reduce the overactive thyroid function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased heart rate, hypercalcemia, and weight loss are not expected side effects of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. Instead, the goal is to suppress the overactive thyroid, leading to a hypothyroid state.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.
4. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in?
- A. Spokesperson
- B. Reporting
- C. Monitoring
- D. Job analysis and redesign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitoring.' Monitoring involves regularly checking and observing the status of a unit or situation. In this scenario, the nurse manager is actively seeking feedback from staff members to assess and keep track of the staffing situation. Choice A, 'Spokesperson,' refers to a role where someone represents or speaks on behalf of a group or organization, which is not the primary activity in this case. Choice B, 'Reporting,' typically involves presenting information or data about a specific topic or issue but does not capture the ongoing observation and assessment aspect seen in monitoring. Choice D, 'Job analysis and redesign,' involves assessing and restructuring job roles, responsibilities, and tasks, which is not directly related to the action of monitoring staffing levels.
5. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
- A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
- B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
- C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
- D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
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