Nursing Elites

1. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

• A. When she is comfortable in her current position
• B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
• C. As soon as a position opens
• D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a position as a nurse manager when she has developed leadership and clinical expertise. Option A, 'When she is comfortable in her current position,' is incorrect as comfort in the current position may not necessarily align with the skills required for a managerial role. Option B, 'When she begins mentoring other new nurses,' is not a definitive indicator of readiness for a managerial position. Option C, 'As soon as a position opens,' does not take into account the necessary skills and experience required for a nurse manager role. Therefore, the best time to consider applying for a nurse manager position is after developing the required leadership and clinical expertise.

2. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations, he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager's actions?

• A. Networking
• B. Employee development
• C. Coaching
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Networking.' Networking involves interacting with others to exchange information and develop professional or social contacts. In this scenario, the nurse manager engages in networking by speaking with staff, patients, family members, and administration to understand their perspectives and build relationships. This activity helps the manager gather insights that can positively impact patient care. Choice B, 'Employee development,' focuses on activities aimed at improving staff skills and performance, which is not the primary focus of the manager's actions described. Choice C, 'Coaching,' involves providing guidance and support to individuals to help them achieve specific goals, which is not explicitly depicted in the scenario. Choice D, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing or supervising activities to ensure compliance with standards or objectives, which does not fully capture the manager's proactive engagement in building relationships and gathering information through interactions.

3. An incoherent female client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, Nurse Libby prepares to take emergency action to prevent the potential complication of:

• A. Thyroid storm.
• B. Cretinism.
• C. Myxedema coma.
• D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario described with hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area is indicative of myxedema coma, a severe and life-threatening complication of hypothyroidism. Myxedema coma requires immediate emergency treatment to prevent further deterioration. Choice A, thyroid storm, is a complication of hyperthyroidism characterized by an increase in body temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure. Choice B, cretinism, refers to untreated congenital hypothyroidism leading to mental and physical growth retardation. Choice D, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, is an autoimmune condition leading to hypothyroidism but does not present with the acute, life-threatening symptoms described in the scenario.

4. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

5. An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
• B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
• C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
• D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient’s freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.

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