Nursing Elites

1. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

• A. When she is comfortable in her current position
• B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
• C. As soon as a position opens
• D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a position as a nurse manager when she has developed leadership and clinical expertise. Option A, 'When she is comfortable in her current position,' is incorrect as comfort in the current position may not necessarily align with the skills required for a managerial role. Option B, 'When she begins mentoring other new nurses,' is not a definitive indicator of readiness for a managerial position. Option C, 'As soon as a position opens,' does not take into account the necessary skills and experience required for a nurse manager role. Therefore, the best time to consider applying for a nurse manager position is after developing the required leadership and clinical expertise.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?

• A. Polyuria and polydipsia
• B. Hypertension and bradycardia
• C. Weight gain and edema
• D. Oliguria and thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.

3. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

• A. 1130 and 1330.
• B. 1330 and 1930.
• C. 1530 and 2130.
• D. 1730 and 2330.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being educated on foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Soak your feet in warm water daily.
• B. Avoid going barefoot to protect your feet.
• C. Inspect your feet daily for any cuts or sores.
• D. Avoid using a heating pad to warm your feet if they are cold.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus regarding foot care is to inspect their feet daily for any cuts or sores. This practice helps in early detection of potential issues like cuts, sores, or infections, which can be challenging to heal due to poor circulation in diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because soaking feet in hot water can lead to burns or skin damage, especially for individuals with diabetes who may have reduced sensation. Choice B is incorrect because going barefoot increases the risk of injuries and infections for individuals with diabetes. Choice D is incorrect because using a heating pad can also impair sensation, increasing the risk of burns or injuries for diabetic individuals.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

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