HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
2. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
3. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
- C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
- D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.
4. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?
- A. Difference in the intake and output
- B. Changes in the mucous membranes
- C. Skin turgor
- D. Weekly weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.
5. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication in the morning before eating.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- D. Take the medication only when symptoms worsen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication in the morning before eating.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning for optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because while taking medication with water is generally recommended, levothyroxine specifically needs to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as taking levothyroxine with food can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not only when symptoms worsen.
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