Nursing Elites

1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

2. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

3. What symptoms suggest the dosage of levothyroxine sodium is too high in a 26-year-old client with simple goiter?

• A. Bradycardia and constipation.
• B. Palpitations and shortness of breath.
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite.
• D. Muscle cramps and dry skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpitations and shortness of breath. These symptoms suggest excessive thyroid hormone levels, indicating that the levothyroxine dose is too high. Bradycardia and constipation (choice A) are more indicative of hypothyroidism, which occurs when thyroid hormone levels are low. Lethargy and lack of appetite (choice C) are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Muscle cramps and dry skin (choice D) can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to a high dosage of levothyroxine.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with advanced liver disease who is experiencing ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's fluid volume?

• A. Increase the client's sodium intake
• B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a diuretic as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to manage fluid volume in a client with ascites due to advanced liver disease. Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in the body, including the abdominal cavity where ascites occurs. Increasing sodium intake would worsen fluid retention, and encouraging more fluid intake can exacerbate ascites. Placing the client in a supine position does not directly address the fluid volume issue associated with ascites.

5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

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