a client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident the client has a glasgow coma scale gcs score of 10 what does this sco
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

2. A client asks the nurse for information about reducing risk factors for BPH. Which information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase physical activity. Physical activity can help reduce the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by improving overall circulation and reducing inflammation. While decreasing alcohol consumption and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods may help with symptom management, increasing physical activity is more strongly linked to the prevention of BPH.

3. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.

4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

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