a client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident the client has a glasgow coma scale gcs score of 10 what does this sco
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

2. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed enoxaparin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant, and these symptoms could indicate excessive anticoagulation. Choice A is incorrect because with enoxaparin, injections are usually given in the abdomen, not rotated to different sites. Choice D is not directly related to the medication but is a general precaution for individuals at risk of injury.

3. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

4. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

5. A client with hypertension is being educated on lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which recommendation is the most important to reduce blood pressure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing hypertension as high sodium levels can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. While increasing water intake is beneficial for overall health, reducing sodium has a more significant impact on blood pressure. Regular exercise is important for cardiovascular health but does not have as direct an impact on blood pressure as sodium reduction. Avoiding alcohol is also important, but in terms of managing blood pressure, reducing sodium intake takes precedence.

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