HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with hypertension is being educated on lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which recommendation is the most important to reduce blood pressure?
- A. Increase water intake
- B. Avoid alcohol consumption
- C. Exercise regularly
- D. Reduce sodium intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing hypertension as high sodium levels can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. While increasing water intake is beneficial for overall health, reducing sodium has a more significant impact on blood pressure. Regular exercise is important for cardiovascular health but does not have as direct an impact on blood pressure as sodium reduction. Avoiding alcohol is also important, but in terms of managing blood pressure, reducing sodium intake takes precedence.
2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
4. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
- A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
- B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
- C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- D. No further tests are needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
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