HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the UAP?
- A. Report any client complaint of pain or discomfort
- B. Weigh the client and report any weight gain
- C. Note and report the client's food and liquid intake during meals and snacks
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The UAP can be tasked with reporting complaints, monitoring weight gain, and tracking food and fluid intake, all of which are important in managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks fall within the UAP's scope of practice. Reporting client complaints helps in early identification of complications, monitoring weight is crucial due to fluid retention in Cushing's syndrome, and tracking food and fluid intake assists in dietary management. Choices A, B, and C are all necessary components of care for a client with Cushing's syndrome, making option D the correct answer.
2. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Initiate contact isolation.
- B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
- C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical intervention is to obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity. This will help identify the causative organism present in the wound, enabling healthcare providers to prescribe the appropriate treatment. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case where infection is suspected. Assessing the temperature (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's condition but does not address the underlying cause. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but does not directly address the client's specific condition of a postoperative wound with evisceration and elevated temperature.
3. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.
4. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?
- A. A nurse who is pregnant.
- B. A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal.
- C. A nurse with a cold.
- D. A nurse who is lactating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?
- A. Inadequate drug effects
- B. Increased risk of superinfection
- C. Minimal adverse effects
- D. Slowed onset of action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.