Nursing Elites

1. A male client tells the nurse, 'I am so stressed because I am expected to achieve excellence in everything. My job, my marriage, and my children must be perfect!' Which coping response should the nurse recognize that the client is using?

• A. Repression
• B. Sublimation
• C. Rationalization
• D. Displacement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rationalization. Rationalization is a defense mechanism where the client justifies their stress and need for perfection by creating logical explanations or excuses. In this case, the client is rationalizing their stress by believing that everything in their life must be perfect. Repression (choice A) involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts or feelings. Sublimation (choice B) is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Displacement (choice D) involves transferring emotions from one target to another.

2. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
• B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
• C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
• D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the nasal cannula
• B. Lower the oxygen rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

5. A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. I should keep the urine specimen refrigerated.
• B. I need to start the collection in the morning after my first void.
• C. I will collect the urine for 24 hours and keep it on ice.
• D. I will start collecting the urine after discarding my first morning specimen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.

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