the nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of humulin r to an 8 year old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes the mother comments t
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HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of Humulin R to an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The mother comments that her daughter is a very picky eater and many times does not eat meals. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning. This is important to determine if the child will be consuming food, which is crucial information before administering insulin. If the child does not plan to eat, administering the full dose of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as administering the insulin without knowing if the child will eat can be dangerous. Choice C is not the first intervention because the immediate concern is the child's meal intake. Choice D, while important, is not the first step in this situation.

2. The client diagnosed with a right fractured femur has skeletal traction applied to the right femur. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining skeletal pin sites and assessing for infection are critical in skeletal traction care.

3. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response acknowledges the client's emotions, shows empathy, and validates their feelings of frustration. Option A justifies the situation but does not address the client's emotional state. Option B is unfair to other patients and may not be based on urgency. Option C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than addressing the client's emotions, making it less effective than option D.

4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

5. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesaemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients in renal failure are at high risk for hypomagnesemia due to their impaired kidney function. Renal failure can lead to decreased excretion of magnesium, resulting in its buildup in the body and potential hypomagnesemia. This client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly associated with renal failure and its impact on magnesium levels. Intractable vomiting, hyperparathyroidism, and excessive consumption of simple carbohydrates may have other health implications but are not as strongly linked to hypomagnesemia as renal failure.

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