HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose of 20 units of Humulin R to an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes. The mother comments that her daughter is a very picky eater and many times does not eat meals. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer the 20 Units of Humulin R subcutaneously as prescribed
- B. Ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning
- C. Discuss changing the insulin prescription to Lispro with the healthcare provider
- D. Explain to the mother the importance of eating the scheduled meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the girl if she will be eating her breakfast this morning. This is important to determine if the child will be consuming food, which is crucial information before administering insulin. If the child does not plan to eat, administering the full dose of insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as administering the insulin without knowing if the child will eat can be dangerous. Choice C is not the first intervention because the immediate concern is the child's meal intake. Choice D, while important, is not the first step in this situation.
2. A male client tells the nurse, 'I am so stressed because I am expected to achieve excellence in everything. My job, my marriage, and my children must be perfect!' Which coping response should the nurse recognize that the client is using?
- A. Repression
- B. Sublimation
- C. Rationalization
- D. Displacement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rationalization. Rationalization is a defense mechanism where the client justifies their stress and need for perfection by creating logical explanations or excuses. In this case, the client is rationalizing their stress by believing that everything in their life must be perfect. Repression (choice A) involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts or feelings. Sublimation (choice B) is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Displacement (choice D) involves transferring emotions from one target to another.
3. What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
- A. Bladder palpation
- B. Inspection of the mouth
- C. Blood glucose monitoring
- D. Auscultation of breath sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. This assessment technique is crucial for monitoring gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect of phenytoin. Bladder palpation (choice A) is not relevant to monitoring for phenytoin's side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (choice C) is important for clients with diabetes but is not specifically related to phenytoin. Auscultation of breath sounds (choice D) is more relevant for assessing respiratory conditions, not side effects of phenytoin.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Maintain the client on bed rest
- B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
- C. Encourage early ambulation
- D. Massage the legs daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Obtain a sputum specimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.
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