HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.
2. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
- B. Twist the cast back and forth
- C. Shake powder into the cast
- D. Push a pencil under the cast edge
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.
3. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?
- A. Do not allow the child to return to school for at least one month
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site
- C. Monitor the child's temperature and report any elevation
- D. Observe for any changes in the child's color or energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.
4. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.
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