Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
• B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
• C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A serum calcium level of 7.8 mg/dL requires immediate intervention due to the risk of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias. The other laboratory findings are within normal limits or slightly elevated, which do not pose an immediate threat to the client's health in this scenario.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Presence of uremic frost.' Increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation are all signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Uremic frost, however, is not associated with HHNS but is a clinical finding seen in severe cases of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the nurse should report the presence of uremic frost to the healthcare provider as a separate concern from HHNS.

3. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• B. Presence of a cough
• C. Edema in the lower extremities
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - Shortness of breath.' In a client with congestive heart failure experiencing fluid volume overload, shortness of breath is a critical finding that indicates possible pulmonary congestion and worsening heart failure. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common findings in clients with CHF but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Weight gain may indicate fluid retention, cough can be due to pulmonary congestion, and edema in lower extremities is a common manifestation of CHF, but none of these findings are as concerning as shortness of breath in this scenario.

4. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?

• A. The iron tablets will be absorbed between meals, on an empty stomach
• B. I should give the iron tablets with his milk and cereal each morning
• C. Iron preparations can be taken with antibiotics if he develops an infection
• D. The iron tablets may cause him to sunburn more easily so he should wear sunscreen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.

5. When preparing an educational program for adolescents about the risks of multiple sexual partners, which information is most important to include?

• A. Condoms provide reliable protection against sexually transmitted infections.
• B. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections.
• C. The use of oral contraceptives can reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections.
• D. Having multiple sexual partners increases the risk of developing cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having multiple sexual partners significantly increases the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This information is crucial for adolescents to understand the potential consequences of engaging in risky sexual behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because while condoms are important for protection, they are not 100% effective. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not protect against STIs. Choice D is incorrect as the immediate concern for adolescents in this context is the risk of STIs rather than cancer.

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