Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Perform chest physiotherapy
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Obtain a sputum specimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.

2. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.

3. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
• B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
• D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is being discharged with a prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which statement indicates that the client understands the action of this medication?

• A. It helps my body make red blood cells
• B. It helps prevent infections
• C. It helps my kidneys excrete excess fluid
• D. It helps me breathe easier

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It helps my body make red blood cells.' Erythropoietin is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the body. Clients with chronic renal failure often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This medication helps address that issue by increasing red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin does not prevent infections, help kidneys excrete excess fluid, or assist with breathing; its primary action is to boost red blood cell production.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that the client's abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Turn the client from side to side
• B. Increase the dwell time of the dialysis
• C. Reposition the client
• D. Milk the catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is turning the client from side to side. This helps to facilitate drainage in peritoneal dialysis. Turning the client can aid in redistributing the dialysate and promoting better drainage. Increasing the dwell time of the dialysis (choice B) may not address the immediate issue of inadequate drainage. Repositioning the client (choice C) might not be as effective as turning the client from side to side. Milking the catheter (choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to complications. In this situation, the priority is to facilitate drainage to address the distended abdomen.

Similar Questions