HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
2. Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- A. Cigarette smoking.
- B. High-cholesterol diet.
- C. Obesity.
- D. Hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is the most significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to its role in insulin resistance. Excess body fat, especially around the abdomen, leads to increased production of inflammatory markers and hormones that can cause insulin resistance. While cigarette smoking, high-cholesterol diet, and hypertension can contribute to health issues, they are not as directly linked to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus as obesity.
3. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?
- A. Heart murmur.
- B. Murmur.
- C. S3 sound.
- D. S4 sound.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.
4. While assessing the vital signs of a 10-year-old who underwent a tonsillectomy this morning, the nurse observes the child swallowing every 2-3 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement?
- A. Inspect the posterior oropharynx
- B. Assess for teeth clenching or grinding
- C. Touch the tonsillar pillars to stimulate the gag reflex
- D. Ask the child to speak to evaluate a change in voice tone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Frequent swallowing post-tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding. Inspecting the posterior oropharynx is essential to assess for any signs of bleeding, such as fresh blood or clots, which may necessitate immediate intervention. Option B is incorrect as teeth clenching or grinding is not directly related to the observation of frequent swallowing in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because stimulating the gag reflex is not necessary at this point and may be uncomfortable for the child. Option D is incorrect as evaluating a change in voice tone is not relevant to the situation of observing frequent swallowing.
5. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Heartburn
- C. Flatulence
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.