a male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics which interventi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

2. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. After vomiting 240 ml (1 cup), the nurse should document the remaining 760 ml as the fluid intake. Choice A (240 ml) is the amount vomited, not the total intake. Choice B (500 ml) and Choice D (1000 ml) are the total intake, not considering the vomiting.

3. While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.

5. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

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