the nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse mon
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HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A 12-year-old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure, and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicates that his mother understands the management of his diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt is a healthier choice for managing the diet of a 12-year-old boy with a high BMI and elevated HBA1C. This choice provides a good balance of nutrients, fiber, and low-fat content, helping to lower BMI and maintain healthy blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal as they contain higher levels of refined carbohydrates, saturated fats, and sugars, which can contribute to weight gain and worsen blood sugar control in this scenario.

3. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.

4. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.

5. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.

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