Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Increased abdominal girth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most critical assessment findings in a client with cirrhosis. These symptoms may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis but are not as urgent as addressing altered mental status and confusion.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
• D. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning finding in a client with a tracheostomy and thick secretions. This can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but does not pose an immediate threat to the airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may require interventions to promote healing but is not as urgent as mucous plugging. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could indicate infection or impaired circulation, which should be addressed but does not pose the same immediate risk as airway obstruction.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

4. A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client.
• B. Notify the charge nurse of the situation.
• C. Request that the mother leave the room.
• D. Request security to remove her from the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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