a male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 22 mgdl and a blood urea nitrogen bun of 24 mldl what question should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

1. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mg/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question to ask the client first is about their recent intake of nephrotoxic medications like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate possible renal issues, making it crucial to assess potential causes such as medication-induced nephrotoxicity. Inquiring about family history of renal failure or recent kidney transplants would not provide immediate insights into the client's current renal condition. While a diet low in protein could influence BUN levels, it is important to address medication history first due to the acute presentation in the emergency department.

2. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction today?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction is to advise them that light housekeeping is safe to do, but they should avoid heavy lifting. Heavy lifting can strain the surgical site and potentially lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as a metal eye shield is usually recommended during sleep, not during the day. Choice B is incorrect because eye ointment should typically be administered after applying eye drops to prevent dilution of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as sexual activities should usually be avoided for a specific period post-surgery as advised by the healthcare provider.

3. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.

4. The nurse is assessing an older adult with a pacemaker who leads a sedentary lifestyle. The client reports being unable to perform activities that require physical exertion. The nurse should further assess the client for which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.

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