a male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 22 mgdl and a blood urea nitrogen bun of 24 mldl what question should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

1. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mg/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question to ask the client first is about their recent intake of nephrotoxic medications like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate possible renal issues, making it crucial to assess potential causes such as medication-induced nephrotoxicity. Inquiring about family history of renal failure or recent kidney transplants would not provide immediate insights into the client's current renal condition. While a diet low in protein could influence BUN levels, it is important to address medication history first due to the acute presentation in the emergency department.

2. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about fluid restrictions by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions. Skipping dialysis can lead to serious complications and worsen the client's condition. It is crucial for clients to understand the importance of adhering to their dialysis schedule for optimal management of chronic renal failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate understanding of fluid restrictions, the need to limit fluid intake to prevent overload, and the importance of medication compliance, respectively. These statements show appropriate knowledge and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

3. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

4. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

5. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.

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