Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

• A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
• B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
• C. Purulent sputum.
• D. Excessive hunger.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

2. A nurse reviews a client’s urinalysis report. Which finding does the nurse recognize as abnormal?

• A. pH of 6.0
• B. An absence of protein
• C. The presence of ketones
• D. Specific gravity of 1.018

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of ketones in the urine is abnormal. Ketones in the urine may indicate a state of ketosis, which is commonly seen in uncontrolled diabetes, fasting, or a low-carbohydrate diet. A normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, making a pH of 6.0 within the normal range. An absence of protein is a normal finding in urine, as proteinuria (presence of protein) is abnormal. A specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range of 1.016 to 1.022. Therefore, the presence of ketones is the abnormal finding in this scenario.

3. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
• B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
• C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
• D. Tell the client not to travel alone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

4. A patient is being treated for shock after a motor vehicle accident. The provider orders 6% dextran 75 to be given intravenously. The nurse should expect which outcome as the result of this infusion?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Improved blood oxygenation
• C. Increased interstitial fluid
• D. Stabilization of heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 6% Dextran 75 is a high molecular-weight colloidal solution used to treat shock from burns or trauma. Colloids like 6% dextran 75 are plasma expanders that help increase blood volume, leading to improved heart rate and blood pressure stabilization. The infusion of plasma expanders does not typically decrease urine output. It primarily aims to stabilize circulation rather than affect blood oxygenation or increase interstitial fluid levels.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

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