Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis has blood drawn for several serum laboratory tests. Which of the following serum amylase values, noted by the nurse reviewing the results, would be expected in this client at this time?

• A. 48 units/L
• B. 97 units/L
• C. 150 units/L
• D. 395 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "395 units/L." The normal serum amylase range is 25 to 151 units/L. In acute pancreatitis, the amylase level is greatly increased, typically exceeding the upper limit of the normal range. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range of serum amylase levels and would not be expected in a client with acute pancreatitis.

2. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?

• A. Complete blood counts
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Liver enzymes
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.

3. Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?

• A. Assess the patency of the airway
• B. Check tubes and drains for patency
• C. Check the dressing for bleeding
• D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

4. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:

• A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
• B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
• C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
• D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.

5. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

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