HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.
2. The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- B. Turn the client to the side
- C. Stop the feeding infusion
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.
3. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.
4. A client with end-stage pulmonary disease requests 'no heroic measures' if she stops breathing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
- B. Ask the client to discuss a DNR order with her healthcare provider.
- C. Consult the ethics committee for guidance.
- D. Discharge the client with no further discussion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to ask the client to discuss a 'do not resuscitate' (DNR) order with her healthcare provider. While the client's wishes should be respected, it is essential to ensure proper documentation and legal protection by involving the healthcare provider in this decision-making process. Documenting the request in the medical record (Choice A) is important but should follow the discussion with the healthcare provider. Consulting the ethics committee (Choice C) may not be necessary at this stage and could delay the necessary actions. Discharging the client (Choice D) without further discussion is not appropriate and disregards the importance of addressing the client's wishes in a respectful and professional manner.
5. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
- B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
- C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
- D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.