HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.
2. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
- B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
- C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
- D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.
3. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?
- A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
- B. The client can identify an object by touch.
- C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
- D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.
4. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement that 'This is a new pill I have never taken before' indicates the need for further assessment by the nurse to ensure the medication is correct and safe. Choices A, B, and C do not raise immediate concerns about the medication order; therefore, they are incorrect. Choice A simply provides information about the client's usual medication schedule, choice B is related to the cost of the pills, and choice C expresses fatigue from taking pills, but none of these statements suggest a potential issue with the new medication.
5. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?
- A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
- B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
- C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
- D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access