Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• D. Serum cholesterol level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.

3. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

4. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

5. The client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.
• B. Instruct the client regarding the importance of the covering.
• C. Reapply the covering after filling it with fresh ice.
• D. Ask the client how long the ice pack was applied to the skin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary action for the nurse is to assess the skin under the ice pack to check for any potential thermal injury. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Once the skin assessment is done and no harm is found, the nurse can proceed with other necessary actions such as providing instructions to the client or replacing the covering with fresh ice.

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