Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• D. Serum cholesterol level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.

2. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

3. The healthcare provider assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate next step for the healthcare provider is to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. These issues can commonly cause a slowed IV rate. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may not address the underlying problem of kinked tubing or incorrect IV pole height. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) is important for securement but is not the priority in this situation. Flushing with normal saline and recounting the drop rate (Choice D) should only be done after ruling out mechanical issues like kinks in the tubing.

4. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
• B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
• C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows. By incorporating familiar bedtime rituals that do not compromise the client's safety, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the overall quality of care provided to the client.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

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