Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• D. Serum cholesterol level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.

2. A healthcare professional is teaching a new colleague about the correct administration of subcutaneous (subQ) injections. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle for subQ injections
• B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
• C. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle
• D. Massage the site after administering the injection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pinching the skin before inserting the needle is essential in elevating the subcutaneous tissue away from the muscle. This technique ensures that the medication is administered into the correct tissue layer, promoting proper absorption and decreasing the risk of injecting into muscle tissue.

3. Which client care task requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as mandated by the Standard Precautions protocol?

• A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter.
• B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction.
• C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection.
• D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer's disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because emptying a urinary catheter drainage bag exposes the nurse to body fluids, necessitating the use of barrier gloves as per Standard Precautions to prevent potential infection transmission.

4. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedbound with a foley catheter and enteral tube feeds. Which change from the client warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client’s urinary drainage tubing
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage indicates infection at the insertion site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications.

5. The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

• A. Administration of plasma expanders
• B. Use of careful handwashing technique
• C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
• D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.

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