Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

• A. Asystole
• B. Bigeminy
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's weight increases by 1 kg in 24 hours.
• B. The client's peritoneal effluent is cloudy.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client's peritoneal effluent is clear and pale yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

3. What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?

• A. Maintain the client in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest restraints.
• B. Position the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
• C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
• D. Transfer the client to a wheelchair close to the nursing station for observation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.

4. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?

• A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
• B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
• C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
• D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.

5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

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