based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinen
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

2. A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Joining a support group of individuals facing similar circumstances can provide valuable support and the opportunity to share experiences, making it the most appropriate response. The response suggesting counseling to decrease feelings of guilt is premature because the partner did not directly express guilt and it may not be the most immediate need. Suggesting involvement in volunteer work at this time fails to address the partner's current emotional distress and may come across as dismissive. Offering false reassurance by stating 'this, too, shall pass' does not validate the partner's feelings and minimizes the seriousness of their concerns.

3. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the nurse to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best method for the nurse to evaluate the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home is by observing the client change the dressing unassisted. Direct observation allows the nurse to assess if the client has mastered the skill and provides an opportunity to confirm the proficiency. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same level of assessment as direct observation. Option A incorrectly focuses on the client's feelings rather than their actual performance ability. Option B, asking the client to demonstrate the procedure, may not accurately reflect their practical skills. Option C, seeking a family member's opinion, introduces potential bias and may not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability to perform the dressing change independently.

4. What is the priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn is providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby. Time alone provides the opportunity for paternal-infant attachment and bonding, which can help reduce the father's anxiety. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class, although helpful, does not directly address the immediate need for bonding. Offering a demonstration on newborn care tasks like diapering, feeding, and bathing may not effectively address the father's anxiety at that moment, as he may not be ready to absorb such information. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby is a simplistic approach that may not adequately address the emotional needs and concerns of the father regarding bonding with his newborn.

5. A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a Hispanic patient presents with abdominal cramping related to empacho, it is crucial for the nurse to first understand the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences before initiating any interventions. In the case of a culture-bound syndrome like empacho, it is essential to acknowledge and respect the patient's cultural background. While options like administering medications, arranging a visit by a curandero(a), or providing massage may have potential benefits, assessing the patient's beliefs ensures that interventions are culturally sensitive and aligned with the patient's values. By engaging the patient in a discussion about potential treatments, the nurse can gather valuable information to tailor care effectively, promoting trust and collaboration in the healthcare process. This patient-centered approach enhances the quality of care and fosters a culturally competent nursing practice. Therefore, asking the patient about preferred treatments is the most appropriate initial action to address the patient's condition effectively.

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