NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
2. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?
- A. The nurse explains the 0 to 10 intensity pain scale.
- B. The nurse asks the patient when the headaches started.
- C. The nurse sits down at the bedside and closes the privacy curtain.
- D. The nurse calls for a male nurse to bring a hospital gown to the room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.
3. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?
- A. EEG
- B. EKG
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.
4. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?
- A. Standing on the female patient's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
- B. Standing on the female patient's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
- C. Standing behind the female patient, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
- D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the female patient, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.
5. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
- B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
- C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
- D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.
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