Nursing Elites

1. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

2. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

• A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
• B. Stop the transfusion.
• C. Slow the infusion rate.
• D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

3. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

4. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Make the client comfortable and allow the client to sleep.
• B. Assess the client's neurologic status.
• C. Notify the surgeon about the comment.
• D. Ask the client's family to co-sign the operative permit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement about aliens coming to get them could indicate confusion, which raises concerns about their neurologic status. Since informed consent for surgery requires the client to be mentally competent, the nurse should assess the client's neurologic status to ensure they understand and can legally provide consent. Option A of making the client comfortable and letting them sleep does not address the potential neurologic issue. If the nurse finds the client to be confused, it is essential to inform the surgeon and seek permission from the next of kin if necessary. Therefore, assessing the client's neurologic status is the priority to ensure the client's ability to consent to the surgery.

5. What initial response would the nurse give to a husband who is upset that his wife's alcohol withdrawal delirium has persisted for a second day?

• A. "I see that you're worried. We're using medication to ease your wife's discomfort."?
• B. "This is expected. I suggest that you go home because there's nothing you can do to help."?
• C. "If you're afraid that she will die, I assure you, very few alcoholics die during detoxification."?
• D. "If you are concerned that she is uncomfortable, I'm sure that she's not in pain."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the husband's feelings and provide information on the treatment plan to alleviate his concerns. This approach validates his emotions and educates him on the steps being taken to help his wife, promoting understanding and reducing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the husband's worries and implies helplessness, potentially increasing his distress. Choice C is inappropriate as it introduces the concept of death, which can heighten fear and anxiety in the husband. Choice D is not recommended as it provides reassurance about the wife's pain without accurate knowledge of her discomfort, which could undermine trust and communication between the nurse and the husband.

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