Nursing Elites

1. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

2. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.

3. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

4. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

• A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
• B. Depression with melancholic features
• C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
• D. Bipolar depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

5. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?

• A. Standing on the female patient's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the female patient's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the female patient, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the female patient, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.

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