HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. A male adolescent who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder receives a prescription for an anticonvulsant. Which statement indicates the client is at risk for non-compliance with life-long medication management?
- A. I hope I will be able to drive while taking these pills.
- B. My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills.
- C. I don't want my parents monitoring my medications.
- D. I will take the pills at home so others will not see me.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills' indicates concerns about peer perception, which can lead to non-compliance in adolescents. Peer pressure and fear of social stigma can significantly impact medication adherence in this age group. Option B is the most concerning response as it reflects the client's worry about how others perceive him for taking medication, potentially leading to non-compliance due to social pressures. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address societal perception or peer pressure, making them less likely to impact the client's medication adherence negatively.
2. Following a motor vehicle collision, a 3-year-old girl has a spica cast applied. Which toy is best for the nurse to offer this child?
- A. Duck that squeaks.
- B. Fashion doll and clothes.
- C. Set of cloth and hand puppets.
- D. Handheld video game.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, a set of cloth and hand puppets is the best choice for a 3-year-old with a spica cast. Hand puppets encourage imaginative play, creativity, and interaction, which are developmentally appropriate for a child of this age. The soft materials are safe for the child and can provide entertainment and engagement without posing a risk of injury. The other options, such as a duck that squeaks, a fashion doll and clothes, and a handheld video game, may not be as suitable for a child in a spica cast due to safety concerns, lack of interactive play, or developmental appropriateness.
3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
- B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
- C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.
4. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?
- A. Administer a corticosteroid
- B. Obtain a throat culture
- C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
- D. Place the child in an upright position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.
5. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
- B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
- C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.
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