Nursing Elites

1. A male adolescent who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder receives a prescription for an anticonvulsant. Which statement indicates the client is at risk for non-compliance with life-long medication management?

• A. I hope I will be able to drive while taking these pills.
• B. My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills.
• C. I don't want my parents monitoring my medications.
• D. I will take the pills at home so others will not see me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement 'My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills' indicates concerns about peer perception, which can lead to non-compliance in adolescents. Peer pressure and fear of social stigma can significantly impact medication adherence in this age group. Option B is the most concerning response as it reflects the client's worry about how others perceive him for taking medication, potentially leading to non-compliance due to social pressures. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address societal perception or peer pressure, making them less likely to impact the client's medication adherence negatively.

2. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
• B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while the infant is held
• C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held can provide important diagnostic information in assessing the cardiac and respiratory status of the infant who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot. This intervention can help the nurse identify any abnormal heart or lung sounds, which may indicate complications or issues that need further evaluation or intervention.

3. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

4. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

5. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

• A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
• D. Provide low-calorie meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.

Similar Questions