HESI RN TEST BANK

Pediatric HESI

A male adolescent who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder receives a prescription for an anticonvulsant. Which statement indicates the client is at risk for non-compliance with life-long medication management?

    A. I hope I will be able to drive while taking these pills.

    B. My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills.

    C. I don't want my parents monitoring my medications.

    D. I will take the pills at home so others will not see me.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills' indicates concerns about peer perception, which can lead to non-compliance in adolescents. Peer pressure and fear of social stigma can significantly impact medication adherence in this age group. Option B is the most concerning response as it reflects the client's worry about how others perceive him for taking medication, potentially leading to non-compliance due to social pressures. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address societal perception or peer pressure, making them less likely to impact the client's medication adherence negatively.

When reviewing the dietary guidelines for a child with nephrotic syndrome, which diet should the practical nurse reinforce with the parents?

  • A. High protein.
  • B. Low sodium.
  • C. Low fat.
  • D. High carbohydrate.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct diet that the practical nurse should reinforce with the parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome is a low-sodium diet. This diet is crucial for managing fluid retention and reducing the risk of edema, which are common concerns in children with nephrotic syndrome.

A child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

  • A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
  • B. Limit fluid intake.
  • C. Provide a high-fat diet.
  • D. Encourage bed rest only.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed is crucial for managing respiratory distress in children with cystic fibrosis. Bronchodilators help to open the airways, facilitating easier breathing for the child. Limiting fluid intake, providing a high-fat diet, or encouraging bed rest only are not appropriate interventions for respiratory distress associated with cystic fibrosis. Limiting fluid intake could worsen dehydration, a high-fat diet is not recommended due to pancreatic insufficiency in cystic fibrosis, and bed rest alone does not address the respiratory distress.

A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

  • A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
  • B. Diaphragmatic breathing.
  • C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
  • D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

  • A. Dark-colored urine
  • B. Mild periorbital edema
  • C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
  • D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

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