Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who was brought to the clinic by the parents due to concerns about the infant’s feeding. The parents report that the infant has been vomiting after every feeding and has not gained any weight. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Evaluate the infant’s feeding technique
• B. Check the infant’s hydration status
• C. Measure the infant’s abdominal circumference
• D. Review the infant’s growth chart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing hydration status is crucial in an infant who is vomiting frequently, as dehydration can quickly become a serious issue. In this scenario, the infant's inability to retain feeds and lack of weight gain may indicate a potential risk of dehydration, making it essential to prioritize checking the infant's hydration status to prevent complications. Evaluating the feeding technique (Choice A) could be important but is secondary to addressing potential dehydration. Measuring the abdominal circumference (Choice C) and reviewing the growth chart (Choice D) are not the priority in this situation where dehydration is a primary concern.

2. What information should be reinforced with the parents about introducing solid foods to their infant?

• A. Begin with one tablespoon of the food.
• B. Introduce each food 4 to 7 days apart.
• C. Mix the new food with rice cereal.
• D. Remove foods when the infant refuses them.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Introducing solid foods 4 to 7 days apart is crucial as it allows time to identify any allergic reactions or intolerances to specific foods. This gradual introduction helps parents monitor their infant's response to new foods and pinpoint any potential issues, ensuring the infant's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because starting with one tablespoon of the food, mixing new food with rice cereal, and removing foods when the infant refuses them are not recommended practices for introducing solid foods to infants.

3. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

4. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

5. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

• A. DTaP and IPV can be safely given to the infant at the scheduled time.
• B. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because the infant has a cold.
• C. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.
• D. DTaP is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

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