Nursing Elites

1. What suggestion should the nurse provide to prevent diaper rash in a 4-month-old infant as requested by the mother?

• A. Generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder at each diaper change to promote dryness.
• B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
• C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
• D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide forms a protective layer on the skin, creating a barrier against irritants and moisture, thus helping to prevent diaper rash. Unlike other options, barrier creams do not need to be completely removed at each diaper change, allowing the skin to remain protected between changes.

2. A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child’s peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Reassess the peak flow reading
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Provide oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.

3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

4. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

5. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents
• C. It is important to focus on your child's needs at this difficult time
• D. A reaction of anger is your child's attempt to cope with this loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.

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