which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure
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1. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

2. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

3. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

4. A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which of the following foods, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat to promote wound healing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oranges are a rich source of vitamin C, which is essential for wound healing due to its role in collagen synthesis. Citrus fruits like oranges, as well as other fruits and vegetables such as strawberries, kiwi, bell peppers, and broccoli, are high in vitamin C. Meats like steak and veal are not significant sources of vitamin C; they are primarily sources of protein. Cheese is not a good source of vitamin C but does provide calcium and protein.

5. The client is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients receiving hemodialysis because they are at an increased risk of infection due to the invasive nature of the procedure. Administering anticoagulants is not typically a part of the routine care for clients undergoing hemodialysis unless specifically prescribed. While a high-protein diet may be beneficial for some clients, it is not a specific intervention related to hemodialysis. Encouraging fluid intake must be individualized based on the client's fluid status and should not be a generalized recommendation for all clients receiving hemodialysis.

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