Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Daily weight measurements.
• B. Monitoring intake and output.
• C. Assessing skin turgor.
• D. Checking for peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
• B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
• C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
• D. Take the normal dose of insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.

3. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

4. To assess the quality of an adult client's pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Observe body language and movement.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Identify effective pain relief measures.
• D. Provide a numeric pain scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to describe the pain. This approach allows the nurse to gather subjective information directly from the client, such as the quality, intensity, location, and factors that aggravate or alleviate the pain. Observing body language and movement (Choice A) can provide additional cues but may not fully capture the client's pain experience. Identifying effective pain relief measures (Choice C) and providing a numeric pain scale (Choice D) are important aspects of pain management but do not directly assess the quality of the client's pain.

5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
• B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
• C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
• D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.

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