Nursing Elites

1. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently.
• C. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
• D. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.

3. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
• D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.

4. A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?

• A. Alzheimer’s disease
• B. Hypertension
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Viral hepatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.

5. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate extremities on pillows
• B. Evaluate edema for pitting
• C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
• D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.

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