Nursing Elites

1. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

2. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client’s blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow.
• B. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
• C. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During hemodialysis, a drop in blood pressure can occur due to fluid removal. To maintain blood pressure, the nurse should consider adjusting the rate of extracorporeal blood flow to optimize fluid removal without causing hypotension. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position can help improve venous return and cardiac output. Administering a bolus of normal saline can help increase intravascular volume and support blood pressure. Therefore, all the actions listed in choices A, B, and C are appropriate measures to maintain blood pressure during hemodialysis. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses all the relevant actions to address the dropping blood pressure effectively. Choices A, B, and C, when implemented together, can help manage hypotension during hemodialysis.

3. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

4. The patient is beginning furosemide and has started a 2-week course of a steroid medication. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid consuming licorice to prevent excess potassium loss.
• B. Report a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours.
• C. Obtain an order for a potassium supplement.
• D. Take the furosemide in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is taking furosemide and a steroid medication, there is an increased risk of potassium loss due to the interaction between the two drugs. Consuming licorice should be avoided as it can worsen potassium loss. Reporting a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours is not directly related to the drug interaction and may not be necessary. Taking furosemide at bedtime is not the primary concern when a patient is concurrently on a steroid medication and furosemide. Therefore, obtaining an order for a potassium supplement is the most appropriate recommendation to counteract the potential potassium loss.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
• D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.

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