Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

2. The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

• A. Establishing a rapport with group members.
• B. Clarifying the nurse’s role and clients’ responsibilities.
• C. Discussing ways to use new coping skills learned.
• D. Helping clients identify areas of problems in their lives.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.

3. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

• A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
• B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
• C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
• D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

4. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
• B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
• C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
• D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.

5. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

• A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
• B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
• C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
• D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

Similar Questions