Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

2. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?

• A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
• B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
• C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
• D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.

3. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
• D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.

4. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Client adheres to a meal plan and gains weight.
• B. Client discusses the impact of the disorder on family.
• C. Client expresses a desire to change behavior.
• D. Client reduces the frequency of binge eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

5. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

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