Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

2. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?

• A. “You should have regular eye exams.”
• B. “It is important to avoid caffeine while on this medication.”
• C. “You may experience dry mouth and blurred vision.”
• D. “You should increase your intake of vitamin C to prevent side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.

5. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?

• A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
• B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
• C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
• D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.

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