the nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment ect in the morning which intervention should

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

A. Hold all bedtime medication.
B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
C. Implement elopement precautions.
D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.

2. The healthcare provider documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here” and tells the healthcare provider that she believes that the television talks to her. The healthcare provider should document these assessment findings in which section of the mental status exam?

A. Level of concentration
B. Insight and judgment
C. Remote memory
D. Mood and affect

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insight and judgment should be documented as these findings assess the client’s awareness of their need for treatment and understanding of their condition. In this scenario, the client’s statement of not needing to be hospitalized and belief that the television talks to her reflect her insight into her situation and judgment regarding reality. The other options are incorrect: Level of concentration refers to the ability to focus and maintain attention; Remote memory evaluates the recall of past events and information; Mood and affect assess emotional state and expression, which are not directly reflected in the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and belief about the television.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. While working with a male client at a community mental health center, the client reports hearing voices that tell him to get a knife from the kitchen and hurt himself. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement?

A. Prevent the client from going into the kitchen until the hallucination subsides.
B. Report the behavior to the client’s case worker to inform the family.
C. Assign a UAP to stay with the client continually.
D. Document the behavior in the client’s record and notify the HCP.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial intervention for the RN to implement in this scenario is to prevent the client from accessing the kitchen where potential means of self-harm are available until the hallucination subsides. This immediate action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. While reporting the behavior to the client's case worker for further support is important, addressing the immediate risk of harm takes precedence. Assigning a UAP to stay with the client continually is valuable for ongoing monitoring but is secondary to ensuring immediate safety. Documenting the behavior in the client's record and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps in the care process; however, they should follow actions taken to ensure the client's immediate safety.

5. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:

A. Temperament
B. Genetic factors
C. Resilience
D. Paradoxical effects of neglect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt and cope with adverse situations. In this case, Christopher's positive outlook, love for school, and good academic performance despite experiencing neglect demonstrate resilience. Choice A, 'Temperament,' refers to an individual's natural behavioral style and would not fully explain Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) are not directly related to his ability to cope with neglect. Choice D, 'Paradoxical effects of neglect,' does not fit the situation as Christopher's positive response is more indicative of resilience than paradoxical effects.