Nursing Elites

1. The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

• A. Hold all bedtime medication.
• B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
• C. Implement elopement precautions.
• D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.

2. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. Have you lost interest in activities you used to enjoy?
• B. Has your ability to think or concentrate decreased?
• C. How many consecutive hours do you sleep at night?
• D. Do you hear sounds or voices that others do not hear?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inquiring about hallucinations is crucial for assessing the return of psychotic symptoms due to discontinuation of antipsychotic medication. Hearing sounds or voices that others do not hear can indicate the presence of auditory hallucinations, a common symptom in schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to assess in clients with schizophrenia, but in this scenario, the priority is to determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations, which can be a sign of worsening psychotic symptoms.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. When developing a plan of care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Impaired comfort.
• B. Risk for injury.
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• D. Ineffective coping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem in this scenario because aspiration of a caustic material can lead to serious airway and respiratory issues. This poses an immediate threat to the client's life and requires urgent intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The other options, such as Impaired comfort, Risk for injury, and Ineffective coping, are important but are secondary concerns compared to the critical nature of respiratory compromise in this situation.

5. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

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