Nursing Elites

1. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Risk for suicide
• B. Sleep deprivation
• C. Situational low self-esteem
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

2. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

• A. Hold all bedtime medications.
• B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
• C. Implement elopement precautions.
• D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention by the RN to address a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks to see if the door is locked and asks for reassurance?

• A. Set a specific limit on the number of times the client can check the door.
• B. Help the client find an alternative activity to perform.
• C. Provide consistent reassurance that the door is locked.
• D. Ignore the checking behavior and focus on other behaviors.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a specific limit on the checking behavior is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly checks the door and seeks reassurance. This approach helps the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promotes independence, and supports progress in treatment. Choice B is not the most suitable intervention as it does not directly address the compulsive checking behavior. Choice C, providing consistent reassurance, may reinforce the compulsive behavior and hinder treatment progress. Choice D of ignoring the behavior does not actively assist the client in managing their symptoms and addressing the underlying disorder.

4. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?

• A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
• B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
• C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
• D. That must have been very frightening, but we will check on you at night and you will be safe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and encourages further exploration of their experience. By expressing empathy and inviting James to share more about what he experienced, it helps build trust and rapport. Choices A and B dismiss the patient's experience and can make them feel invalidated, which is not helpful in establishing a therapeutic relationship. Choice D acknowledges the fear but does not actively engage the patient in discussing their feelings and experiences, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

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