a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment when interviewing the client the rn notes a d
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI

1. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent thoughts about the trauma. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), individuals often experience persistent intrusive thoughts about the traumatic event, which can be distressing and disruptive. This symptom is a hallmark feature of PTSD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, enthusiasm, decreased need for sleep, increased appetite, and weight gain are not typical symptoms of PTSD. Instead, individuals with PTSD may commonly experience symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of triggers related to the trauma, and negative changes in mood and cognition.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. The patient expressing a desire for Wellbutrin to address both depression and smoking cessation indicates an understanding of the medication's dual benefits. This demonstrates effective medication education as the patient comprehends the drug's purposes. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is a common side effect of bupropion, so the statement contradicts this fact. Choice C is incorrect as a history of seizures is a contraindication for bupropion, so this statement shows a misunderstanding of the medication's safety profile. Choice D is incorrect because bupropion is not typically associated with sedation, so the concern about drowsiness is not directly related to this medication.

5. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

Similar Questions

A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?
The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)
A client who refuses antipsychotic medications disrupts group activities, talks with nonsensical words, and wanders into other clients' rooms. The nurse decides that the client needs constant observation based on which of these assessment findings?
A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

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