Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Persistent thoughts about the trauma.
• B. Increased energy and enthusiasm.
• C. Decreased need for sleep.
• D. Increased appetite and weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent thoughts about the trauma. In post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), individuals often experience persistent intrusive thoughts about the traumatic event, which can be distressing and disruptive. This symptom is a hallmark feature of PTSD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, enthusiasm, decreased need for sleep, increased appetite, and weight gain are not typical symptoms of PTSD. Instead, individuals with PTSD may commonly experience symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of triggers related to the trauma, and negative changes in mood and cognition.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention by the RN to address a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks to see if the door is locked and asks for reassurance?

• A. Set a specific limit on the number of times the client can check the door.
• B. Help the client find an alternative activity to perform.
• C. Provide consistent reassurance that the door is locked.
• D. Ignore the checking behavior and focus on other behaviors.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a specific limit on the checking behavior is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly checks the door and seeks reassurance. This approach helps the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promotes independence, and supports progress in treatment. Choice B is not the most suitable intervention as it does not directly address the compulsive checking behavior. Choice C, providing consistent reassurance, may reinforce the compulsive behavior and hinder treatment progress. Choice D of ignoring the behavior does not actively assist the client in managing their symptoms and addressing the underlying disorder.

3. A female high school teacher who was a child of alcoholic parents seeks counseling at the community health clinic because of depression over a student who was killed by a drunk driver. After several weeks of counseling, which client behavior is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death?

• A. Signs a safety contract with the nurse agreeing not to hurt herself or others
• B. Confronts her parents about the hurt she felt as a child of alcoholic parents
• C. Becomes the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD)
• D. Describes her feelings about the student’s death in detail

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Becoming the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD) is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death. This choice demonstrates active involvement in preventing similar tragedies, showing that the client is channeling her emotions into positive action and advocacy. Option A, signing a safety contract, is important for safety but does not directly address coping with the anxiety related to the student's death. Option B, confronting her parents about past hurt, may be beneficial for personal growth but does not directly reflect coping with the current situation. Option D, describing feelings in detail, is a positive step in therapy but does not necessarily indicate coping well with the anxiety related to the student's death.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?

• A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
• B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
• C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.

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