Nursing Elites

1. What clinical feature distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Diaphoresis.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diaphoresis is the correct answer because it is more characteristic of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as diaphoresis (excessive sweating), palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. On the other hand, ketoacidosis is associated with symptoms such as fruity breath, deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Blurred vision can occur in both hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis due to metabolic disturbances affecting the eyes. Weakness is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in both conditions, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two.

2. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus, can cause the retention of water without sodium, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. This occurs because desmopressin increases water reabsorption in the kidneys without affecting sodium levels. Hypernatremia (choice B) is unlikely because desmopressin does not cause excessive sodium retention. Hypokalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothyroidism. Radioactive iodine therapy is used to treat hyperthyroidism by destroying thyroid tissue and reducing hormone production. This can lead to an underactive thyroid, resulting in hypothyroidism. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, usually not associated with radioactive iodine therapy. Hyponatremia (choice C) is a low sodium level, which is also not a common side effect of this therapy. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level, unrelated to radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.

4. The client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about self-care management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rotate my injection sites to prevent skin damage.
• B. I can stop taking my medication if my blood sugar is normal.
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly.
• D. I should follow a healthy diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not stop taking their medication even if blood sugar levels are normal. This is because ongoing management is necessary to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent skin damage and improves insulin absorption. Choice C is correct as regular monitoring of blood sugar levels is vital for managing diabetes effectively. Choice D is correct as following a healthy diet and exercising regularly are key components of diabetes management.

5. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

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