Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

2. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Cold intolerance
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cold intolerance is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, the body's metabolic rate is decreased, leading to a decreased ability to regulate body temperature. This results in a feeling of being cold most of the time. Tachycardia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Weight loss (Choice B) and diaphoresis (Choice D) are also more characteristic of hyperthyroidism, where there is an increased metabolic rate and excess heat production.

4. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

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