Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

2. A new nurse is working hard to follow the established procedures on the unit and is focusing on being as efficient as possible. Which of the following best describes this nurse’s behavior?

• A. The nurse is demonstrating the concept of efficiency, which involves following established procedures to complete tasks in the most effective way possible.
• B. The nurse is demonstrating the concept of task orientation, which focuses on completing tasks efficiently without necessarily considering the impact on patient care.
• C. The nurse is demonstrating the concept of patient-centered care, which focuses on providing care that is respectful of and responsive to individual patient preferences and needs.
• D. The nurse is demonstrating the concept of transformational leadership, which involves inspiring and motivating others to achieve a higher level of performance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The nurse is demonstrating the concept of efficiency by following established procedures to complete tasks effectively. Efficiency in healthcare involves optimizing processes and resources to achieve the best outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as task orientation refers to focusing on task completion without considering broader aspects like patient care. Choice C is incorrect as patient-centered care emphasizes individual patient needs and preferences rather than operational efficiency. Choice D is incorrect as transformational leadership involves inspiring and motivating others, not specifically related to task efficiency.

3. A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.

4. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

• A. Only when feeling unwell.
• B. Only before meals.
• C. Before meals and at bedtime.
• D. Only after meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

5. During a physical assessment of a client with type 2 DM, a nurse notes the following findings: fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dl, temperature of 101°F, pulse 88 bpm, respirations 22/min, and BP 140/84 mmHg. Which finding should concern the nurse the most?

• A. Pulse
• B. BP
• C. Respiration
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Temperature.' A temperature of 101°F indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection. In individuals with diabetes, infections can lead to significant complications and affect blood glucose control. Monitoring and addressing infections promptly are crucial in individuals with diabetes to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A, 'Pulse,' is within the normal range (60-100 bpm) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Choice B, 'BP,' while slightly elevated, is not as acutely concerning as an elevated temperature in this scenario. Choice C, 'Respiration,' falls within the normal range (12-20 breaths/min) and is not the most concerning finding among the options provided.

Similar Questions