Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

2. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Check blood glucose only when feeling unwell.
• B. Check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime.
• C. Check blood glucose only after meals.
• D. Check blood glucose only in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

3. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

4. Which of the following actions by the healthcare provider would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The healthcare provider tells the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them.
• B. The healthcare provider asks the client why they wish to leave.
• C. The healthcare provider asks the client to explain what they understand about their medical diagnosis.
• D. The healthcare provider asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. False imprisonment occurs when a healthcare provider restrains a client from leaving against their will, even if the provider believes it is in the client's best interest. In this scenario, telling the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them constitutes false imprisonment as it restricts the client's freedom of movement. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client why they wish to leave is a form of assessment and does not involve restraining the client. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to educating the client about their medical condition. Choice D is incorrect because asking the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form is a legal and ethical procedure to ensure the client understands the risks of leaving against medical advice.

5. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

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