a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis dka which of the following interven
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.

2. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

4. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

Similar Questions

For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?
The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is receiving education from the nurse on managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications to be ordered?
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?
A client with Cushing's syndrome has been prescribed a diet low in sodium. The nurse knows that the client should avoid which of the following foods?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses