HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should Nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?
- A. Dysuria
- B. Leg cramps
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect of levothyroxine, indicating overmedication. Dysuria (painful urination) is not typically associated with levothyroxine. Leg cramps are not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine; instead, it may be a sign of other eye-related conditions or medication side effects.
2. During preoperative teaching for a female client undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.
- B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.
- C. You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two.
- D. You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Instructing the client to avoid hyperextending the neck after thyroid surgery is crucial to prevent stress on the surgical site and reduce the risk of complications such as strain on the incision or damage to the healing tissues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Keeping the head of the bed flat for 24 hours is not necessary after a thyroidectomy; elevation of the head of the bed can actually help reduce swelling and improve comfort. B) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing after surgery is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, so this advice is incorrect. C) Difficulty swallowing after thyroid surgery is not a typical outcome, so this statement is inaccurate and should not be included in the preoperative teaching.
3. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
- C. Give the client fluids to drink.
- D. Notify the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.
4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
5. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager's actions?
- A. Resource allocation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Job analysis and redesign
- D. Planning for the future
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Planning for the future.' In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in strategic planning by considering policy changes and community dynamics to forecast potential impacts on the unit's functioning. This decisional activity involves anticipating future changes, challenges, and opportunities, and preparing the unit to adapt accordingly. Choice A, 'Resource allocation,' involves distributing resources effectively to support daily operations, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's actions described. Choice B, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing current activities and performance to ensure adherence to standards and goals, rather than proactively planning for future changes as the nurse manager is doing. Choice C, 'Job analysis and redesign,' pertains to evaluating and modifying job roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not directly related to the strategic forecasting and planning involved in anticipating organizational and community impacts.
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