HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?
- A. Polyuria and polydipsia
- B. Hypertension and bradycardia
- C. Weight gain and edema
- D. Oliguria and thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.
3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
4. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:
- A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
- B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
- C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
- D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.
5. Which of the following actions could be considered a breach of patient confidentiality?
- A. Discussing patient information with other healthcare providers in a private setting.
- B. Sharing patient information with family members without the patient's consent.
- C. Discussing patient information in public areas where others may overhear.
- D. Sharing patient information in a private, secure setting with other healthcare providers involved in the patient's care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing patient information in public areas where others may overhear is considered a breach of patient confidentiality because it compromises the privacy and confidentiality of the patient's health information. Choices A and D are not breaches of confidentiality as discussing patient information with other healthcare providers in a private setting or in a private, secure setting with those involved in the patient's care is appropriate. Choice B is also incorrect as sharing patient information with family members without the patient's consent could potentially be a breach of privacy but is not the best answer in this context.
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