Nursing Elites

1. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Severe hypotension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.

3. An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
• B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
• C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
• D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient’s freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.

4. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

5. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

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