Nursing Elites

1. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

2. Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in patient education?

• A. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with information they need to make informed decisions about their care.
• B. The nurse provides education to the patient and their family to help them understand the care plan and make informed decisions.
• C. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with written materials to help them understand their condition and treatment options.
• D. The nurse provides patients with verbal and written instructions on how to manage their care at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in patient education involves providing patients with the necessary information to make informed decisions about their care. This includes explaining treatment options, potential risks and benefits, and answering any questions the patient may have. Choice B is incorrect because while nurses do educate patients and families, the primary focus is on empowering patients to make informed decisions. Choice C is incorrect as providing written materials is a part of patient education but not the sole responsibility of the nurse. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses do provide instructions on managing care at home, patient education goes beyond just the home care aspect to encompass a broader understanding of the patient's condition and treatment.

3. When implementing a new policy on the unit, what process should a nurse manager follow?

• A. The nurse manager should involve staff members in the decision-making process, gather input, and communicate the reasons for the policy change to ensure buy-in from the team.
• B. The nurse manager should implement the policy change immediately and monitor staff compliance to ensure that the new policy is being followed.
• C. The nurse manager should delegate the implementation of the policy change to a staff member and provide support as needed to ensure that the change is successful.
• D. The nurse manager should communicate the policy change to staff members, provide training as needed, and monitor the implementation process to ensure that the change is effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When introducing a new policy on the unit, it is essential for the nurse manager to involve staff members in the decision-making process. This approach helps in gathering input and insights from the team, fostering a sense of ownership and commitment. By communicating the reasons behind the policy change, the nurse manager ensures transparency and promotes understanding among the staff, leading to buy-in and acceptance of the new policy. Choice B is incorrect because implementing a policy change without involving staff and explaining the rationale may lead to resistance or lack of understanding. Choice C is not ideal as delegation without active involvement and communication with the team may result in misunderstandings or incomplete implementation. Choice D lacks the crucial step of involving staff in the decision-making process, which is important for successful policy implementation and team engagement.

4. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication orders for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Calcium supplements
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amiodarone. Amiodarone can affect thyroid function and potentially worsen hypothyroidism, so its use should be carefully considered or questioned in clients with this condition. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is the mainstay therapy for hypothyroidism and should not be questioned in this scenario. Calcium supplements (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated in clients with hypothyroidism and may be needed if there is a deficiency. Aspirin (Choice D) is not directly related to thyroid function and is not a medication that would typically be questioned in a client with hypothyroidism.

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