Nursing Elites

1. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

2. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with his ability to go outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, Nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as bone pain, increased urination, anorexia, and weakness, are indicative of hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels, which can result in bone pain and various systemic effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the symptoms presented by the client. Diabetes mellitus primarily presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus manifests as polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine. Hypoparathyroidism usually presents with hypocalcemia, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:

• A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
• B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
• C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
• D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.

4. Which of the following best describes the way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when requested.
• B. Assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses.
• C. If a follower works with a manager displaying poor leadership skills, they should transfer to a different unit.
• D. Demonstrate respect and appreciation for the manager, even when conversing with coworkers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is to assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses. This approach involves supporting the manager in leveraging their strengths while helping them address and improve upon their weaknesses. Choice A is not specific enough about the context of providing feedback, which may not always be the best way to manage up. Choice C suggests avoiding the situation rather than actively managing it. Choice D, while important, does not directly address the concept of managing up by helping the manager grow and excel.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with DM who is experiencing ketoacidosis. The nurse should prioritize which action?

• A. Administering insulin intravenously.
• B. Giving the client sips of water.
• C. Monitoring the client's urine output.
• D. Applying a heating pad to the client's abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin intravenously is the priority action for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and halts the production of ketones, addressing the underlying cause of ketoacidosis. Giving sips of water (Choice B) may be necessary for hydration, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening issue of ketoacidosis. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority over administering insulin. Applying a heating pad (Choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the condition in ketoacidosis.

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