Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?

• A. Interpersonal activities
• B. Decisional activities
• C. Informational activities
• D. Transformational activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decisional activities. A nurse manager conducting evaluations and reviewing staffing needs for the future involves making decisions related to resource allocation, planning, and problem-solving. These activities fall under the category of decisional activities in management. Choice A, Interpersonal activities, would involve activities like communicating, motivating, and leading staff. Choice C, Informational activities, would involve activities like gathering and disseminating information. Choice D, Transformational activities, would involve inspiring and motivating staff to achieve organizational goals through vision and change.

2. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

• A. Only when feeling unwell.
• B. Only before meals.
• C. Before meals and at bedtime.
• D. Only after meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

3. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Check blood glucose only when feeling unwell.
• B. Check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime.
• C. Check blood glucose only after meals.
• D. Check blood glucose only in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

4. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. Thyroid crisis
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tetany

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

5. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

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