Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes mellitus (DM) can lead to cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because uncontrolled blood glucose levels do not improve wound healing, reduce the need for medication, or decrease the risk of infection. In fact, uncontrolled blood glucose levels can impair wound healing, require more medications to manage symptoms, and increase the risk of infections due to compromised immune function.

2. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

• A. It helps prevent skin irritation.
• B. It helps prevent scar tissue buildup.
• C. It ensures more consistent insulin absorption.
• D. It makes the injections less painful.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

3. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer hypertonic saline
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.

4. During preoperative teaching for a female client undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.
• C. You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two.
• D. You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Instructing the client to avoid hyperextending the neck after thyroid surgery is crucial to prevent stress on the surgical site and reduce the risk of complications such as strain on the incision or damage to the healing tissues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Keeping the head of the bed flat for 24 hours is not necessary after a thyroidectomy; elevation of the head of the bed can actually help reduce swelling and improve comfort. B) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing after surgery is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, so this advice is incorrect. C) Difficulty swallowing after thyroid surgery is not a typical outcome, so this statement is inaccurate and should not be included in the preoperative teaching.

5. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

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