Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
• B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
• C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
• D. Take the normal dose of insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.

2. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?

• A. Gout
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Renal calculi

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.

3. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
• B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
• C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
• D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus who is taking NPH insulin (Humulin N) in the evening is most likely to become hypoglycemic shortly after midnight because this insulin peaks in 6 to 8 hours. What intervention should the nurse recommend to help prevent hypoglycemia while the client is sleeping?

• A. Eat a bedtime snack.
• B. Avoid physical activity.
• C. Take half the usual dose of insulin.
• D. Discontinue insulin until the next meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eating a bedtime snack is the most appropriate intervention to prevent hypoglycemia during the night when NPH insulin peaks. This snack helps maintain blood glucose levels and counteracts the risk of hypoglycemia. Avoiding physical activity is not recommended as it can further lower blood sugar levels. Taking half the usual dose of insulin can lead to inadequate control of blood sugar levels. Discontinuing insulin until the next meal can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia, especially during the peak action of NPH insulin.

5. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?

• A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
• B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
• C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
• D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.

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