Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
• B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
• C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
• D. Take the normal dose of insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.

2. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Lower sodium
• B. Lower potassium
• C. Higher phosphorus
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.

3. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
• B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
• C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
• D. Tell the client not to travel alone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

4. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

5. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

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