HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
 - B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
 - C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
 - D. Take the normal dose of insulin.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.
2. After educating a client with stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
- A. I will limit my total intake of fluids.
 - B. I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages.
 - C. I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages.
 - D. I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Limiting fluids can worsen stress incontinence by concentrating urine and irritating tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Adequate hydration is important to maintain bladder health and function. Choices B and C are correct as avoiding alcoholic and caffeinated beverages can help reduce bladder irritation. Choice D is also correct as losing about 10% of body weight can help reduce intra-abdominal pressure, which is beneficial in managing stress incontinence.
3. To evaluate the positive effect of furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day in a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Obtain daily weights of the client.
 - B. Auscultate heart and breath sounds.
 - C. Palpate the client’s abdomen.
 - D. Assess the client’s diet history.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload and hypertension in clients with CKD. Monitoring daily weights is crucial as weight changes reflect fluid status. Each kilogram of weight change approximately corresponds to 1 liter of fluid retention or loss, making it essential for evaluating the medication's effectiveness. Auscultating heart and breath sounds is more relevant for heart failure cases with fluid retention, not specifically for assessing the effect of furosemide in CKD. Palpating the abdomen is not a direct indicator of furosemide's effectiveness; instead, assessing for edema would be appropriate. While assessing the client's diet history is important to monitor electrolyte balance due to potassium loss with furosemide, it does not directly evaluate the medication's efficacy.
4. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?
- A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
 - B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
 - C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
 - D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.
5. What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?
- A. Atherosclerosis.
 - B. Hyperlipidemia.
 - C. Diabetes.
 - D. Smoking.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Atherosclerosis. It is the primary cause of coronary artery disease, as it involves the buildup of plaque in the arteries, restricting blood flow to the heart. Hyperlipidemia (choice B) contributes to atherosclerosis by increasing cholesterol levels in the blood but is not the direct cause of coronary artery disease. Diabetes (choice C) can accelerate atherosclerosis due to high blood sugar levels, but it is not the most common cause. Smoking (choice D) is a significant risk factor for developing coronary artery disease but is not the primary cause.
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