HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
- B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
- C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
- D. Take the normal dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.
2. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins.
- B. Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period.
- C. Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day.
- D. Keep your hemoglobin A1c under 9% by controlling your blood sugar levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?
- A. Inadequate drug effects
- B. Increased risk of superinfection
- C. Minimal adverse effects
- D. Slowed onset of action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.
4. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?
- A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
- B. I do not have headaches anymore.
- C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
- D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
- A. Atrophy.
- B. Contraction.
- C. Gangrene.
- D. Rubor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
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