HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer a glucagon injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.
2. An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal?
- A. Play a board game with the client and begin talking about stressors
- B. Conduct a formal therapy session
- C. Ask the client to write down their feelings
- D. Have a group discussion about stress management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Playing a board game with the client and initiating a conversation about stressors is the best choice to establish rapport and achieve the therapeutic goal of helping the client verbalize ways to cope with stress. Board games provide a relaxed and non-threatening environment, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and open up about their stressors. Choice B, conducting a formal therapy session, might be too structured and intimidating for the client, hindering open communication. Choice C, asking the client to write down their feelings, lacks the interactive and engaging aspect that a board game provides. Choice D, having a group discussion about stress management, may not be as effective initially as one-on-one interaction to build trust and rapport with the client.
3. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.
4. A preschooler with constipation needs to increase fiber intake. Which snack suggestion should the nurse provide?
- A. Oatmeal cookies
- B. Cheese sticks
- C. Yogurt
- D. Apple slices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oatmeal cookies are the best snack suggestion for a preschooler with constipation needing to increase fiber intake. Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps relieve constipation. Cheese sticks, yogurt, and apple slices are not as high in fiber content as oatmeal and may not be as effective in addressing the constipation issue in this scenario.
5. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Weak palpable distal pulses
- B. Pain at the fracture site
- C. Mild swelling of the leg
- D. Bruising around the fracture site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.
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