Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Troponin level
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.

3. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
• B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
• C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
• D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.

4. During the initial visit to a client with MS who is bed-bound and lifted by a hoist, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
• B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
• C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
• D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the initial visit, the most crucial intervention for the nurse is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being, especially during times when the caregiver is not available. Option B is not the most important as it focuses on assessment rather than immediate safety concerns. Option C, while important, is secondary to ensuring continuous care. Option D is less critical during the initial visit compared to ensuring care continuity in the caregiver's absence.

5. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
• B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
• C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

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