HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer a glucagon injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.
2. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?
- A. Appearance of wound
- B. Pain level
- C. Presence of fever
- D. Mobility status
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.
3. Which needle should the nurse use to administer intravenous fluids (IV) via a client's implanted port?
- A. The one with the clamp and no needle
- B. A butterfly needle
- C. A non-coring (Huber) needle
- D. A standard hypodermic needle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct needle to use for administering intravenous fluids via an implanted port is a non-coring (Huber) needle. This type of needle is specifically designed to access implanted ports without coring the septum, which helps prevent damage. Choice A, the one with the clamp and no needle, is incorrect as it does not describe a needle suitable for accessing an implanted port. Choice B, a butterfly needle, is not typically used for accessing implanted ports. Choice D, a standard hypodermic needle, is not ideal for accessing ports as it can damage the septum.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- B. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- C. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L
- D. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.
5. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Decreased bowel sounds
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Elevated blood glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Decreased urine output is concerning in a client with acute pancreatitis as it may indicate hypovolemia or renal impairment. In acute pancreatitis, decreased urine output can signify inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, leading to renal failure. While the other options are important to monitor in a client with acute pancreatitis, decreased urine output requires immediate attention to prevent further complications.
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