Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
• B. Temperature of 101.3°F
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Heart rate of 88 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.

3. A client with rapid respirations and audible rhonchi is admitted to the intensive care unit because of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Low-flow oxygen by nasal cannula and weight-based heparin protocol are initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Evaluate blood clotting factors daily.
• B. Encourage incentive spirometry use.
• C. Administer pain medication as needed.
• D. Monitor for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating blood clotting factors daily is crucial when a client is on heparin therapy to monitor for potential complications such as bleeding or clotting issues. This monitoring helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Encouraging incentive spirometry use is beneficial for preventing atelectasis and improving lung function, but in this scenario, monitoring blood clotting factors takes precedence. Administering pain medication as needed is important for the client's comfort but is not the priority in managing a pulmonary embolism. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to heparin therapy, but evaluating blood clotting factors provides more specific information on the client's response to treatment.

4. The nurse teaches an adolescent male client how to use a metered dose inhaler. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Secure the mouthpiece under the tongue.
• B. Press down on the device after breathing in fully.
• C. Move the device one to two inches away from the mouth.
• D. Breathe out slowly and deeply while compressing the device.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a metered dose inhaler is to move the device one to two inches away from the mouth. This distance helps ensure effective delivery of the medication directly to the airways. Choice A is incorrect as the mouthpiece should be placed between the lips, not under the tongue. Choice B is incorrect because the device should be pressed down before breathing in, not after. Choice D is wrong because the patient should breathe out fully before using the inhaler, not while compressing the device.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsogluteal site
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Deltoid site
• D. Vastus lateralis site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis site is the most appropriate for an IM injection in a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. Administering the injection in the vastus lateralis ensures effective medication delivery due to muscle wasting in the gluteal region, preventing potential complications associated with the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal sites, which may not be suitable in this specific client case. The deltoid site is mainly used for smaller volumes of medication and may not be ideal for this scenario.

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