HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer a glucagon injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.
2. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
- B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
- C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
- D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.
3. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?
- A. Egg whites, toast, and coffee.
- B. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice.
- C. Granola and grapefruit juice.
- D. Bagel with jelly and skim milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Bagel with jelly and skim milk.' This choice includes skim milk, a good source of calcium, which is important for osteoporosis management. It also avoids foods that inhibit calcium absorption. Osteoporosis dietary management emphasizes increased calcium intake and reducing foods that hinder calcium absorption. Choice A only provides proteins but lacks calcium. Choice B offers fruits and a bran muffin, but it lacks a good source of calcium. Choice C has granola but misses a significant source of calcium.
4. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased joint pain
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
- D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.
5. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an outpatient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs?
- A. Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home
- B. Made an appointment with the oncologist for follow-up treatment
- C. Expressed concern about hair loss and fatigue
- D. Asked for dietary recommendations to manage nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. Renting movies and borrowing books to use at home indicate that the client understands the need for rest and self-care after chemotherapy. This behavior demonstrates the client's intention to engage in activities that promote relaxation and recovery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because making an appointment for follow-up treatment, expressing concern about side effects like hair loss and fatigue, and asking for dietary recommendations are important but do not directly reflect the client's understanding of her immediate care needs post-chemotherapy.
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