Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

2. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?

• A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
• B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
• C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
• D. Document the finding as normal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.

3. To reduce the risk of being named in a malpractice lawsuit, which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Adhere consistently to standards of care.
• B. Thoroughly document all client interactions.
• C. Build a good rapport with clients.
• D. Work closely with the healthcare team.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Adhering consistently to standards of care is crucial for nurses to reduce the risk of being named in a malpractice lawsuit. Following established protocols and guidelines ensures that the care provided is safe and effective. Thoroughly documenting all client interactions is also essential to support the care provided and to have a record of the interventions. Building a good rapport with clients is important for communication and trust but does not directly reduce the risk of malpractice. Working closely with the healthcare team is valuable for collaboration but might not directly impact the risk of malpractice unless it relates to following standards of care.

4. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?

• A. Antihypertensives
• B. Anti-infectives
• C. Antihistamines
• D. Anticholesteremics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

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