Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 50 ml/hour
• B. 25 ml/hour
• C. 75 ml/hour
• D. 100 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, convert 1 mg to 1,000 mcg (1 mg = 1,000 mcg) and then use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity of solution. In this case, it would be 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75 ml/hour. Choice A (50 ml/hour), Choice B (25 ml/hour), and Choice D (100 ml/hour) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate of 75 ml/hour.

2. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

• A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
• B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
• C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the first priority in managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy to facilitate airway clearance. This intervention helps to moisten secretions, making them easier to clear. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial, but increasing humidity should be addressed first. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) and performing deep suctioning (Choice D) are interventions that can be considered after addressing humidity if necessary, but they are not the initial priority.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

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