the healthcare provider prescribes an iv solution of isoproterenol isuprel 1 mg in 250 ml of d5w at 300 mcghour the nurse should program the infusion
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, convert 1 mg to 1,000 mcg (1 mg = 1,000 mcg) and then use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity of solution. In this case, it would be 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75 ml/hour. Choice A (50 ml/hour), Choice B (25 ml/hour), and Choice D (100 ml/hour) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate of 75 ml/hour.

2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are most concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of hepatotoxicity or liver damage, which could be a result of furosemide (Lasix) use. Monitoring liver function is crucial in patients taking furosemide due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg are within normal ranges for a client with chronic heart failure. An elevated blood glucose level may be expected due to the effects of furosemide but is not as immediately concerning as elevated liver enzymes.

5. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the initial intervention for managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Adequate humidity helps to hydrate secretions, making them easier to clear, thus improving airway clearance. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the first-line intervention. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) may be considered if increasing humidity alone is insufficient. Performing deep suctioning (Choice D) should be reserved for when other measures like increasing humidity have been ineffective.

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