Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to gentamicin therapy. The client's serum blood potassium is elevated. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Anuria for the last 12 hours.
• B. Tachycardia and hypotension.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anuria for the last 12 hours. Anuria, the absence of urine output, indicates complete kidney failure and is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. In acute kidney injury (AKI), the kidneys are unable to filter waste from the blood effectively, leading to a buildup of toxins and electrolyte imbalances like elevated blood potassium levels. Tachycardia and hypotension (choice B) can be seen in AKI but do not reflect the urgency of addressing anuria. Decreased urine output (choice C) is concerning but not as critical as the absence of urine production. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice D) are indicative of kidney dysfunction but do not demand immediate action as anuria does.

2. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

3. While assisting a male client with muscular dystrophy (MD) to the bathroom, the nurse observes that he is awkward and clumsy. When he expresses his frustration and complains of hip discomfort, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a portable toilet next to the bed.
• B. Assist the client with walking exercises.
• C. Provide pain medication as prescribed.
• D. Apply a heating pad to the affected hip.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a portable toilet next to the bed is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It reduces the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby preventing falls and reducing discomfort. Choice B, assisting with walking exercises, would not be suitable for a client with muscular dystrophy who is experiencing awkwardness and clumsiness. Choice C, providing pain medication, may address the symptom but does not directly address the issue of reducing the need for walking. Choice D, applying a heating pad, may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of mobility and fall prevention.

4. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A female client receives a prescription for alendronate sodium (Fosamax) to treat her newly diagnosed osteoporosis. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• B. Take with food to avoid stomach upset.
• C. Take before bedtime with a light snack.
• D. Take with milk to enhance absorption.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. This instruction is essential to ensure proper absorption and prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate with food, before bedtime with a light snack, or with milk can interfere with its absorption and effectiveness, leading to potential side effects or reduced therapeutic benefits.

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