a client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain polyuria and confusion what should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.

2. In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an amputation, monitoring the pulse closest to the stump is crucial in evaluating tissue perfusion and the overall health of the limb. Swelling and changes in perfusion can indicate complications such as blood clots or infection. Assessing the proximal pulse helps the nurse ensure adequate blood flow to the remaining limb, thereby preventing further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less directly related to monitoring tissue perfusion in this scenario and are more focused on wound healing and stump care.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

5. The nurse is administering a new medication to a client. What is the priority action before administering the drug?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verifying the client's allergies is the priority action before administering any medication. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to prevent potential allergic reactions, which can be severe and life-threatening. Checking the client's blood pressure, assessing pain levels, and providing education on the medication are important aspects of client care but verifying allergies is essential for ensuring the safety of the client.

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