HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin.
- B. Start an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- D. Administer an antiemetic.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.
2. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The second nurse should assist with compressions or breathing to ensure the patient receives adequate care during CPR. This immediate intervention is crucial in maintaining blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs. Choice A is incorrect because simply relieving the nurse performing CPR may lead to a delay in essential life-saving measures. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on providing direct assistance rather than fetching equipment. Choice D is incorrect as validating the client's advanced directive is not the priority in this emergency situation.
3. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
4. A client with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- B. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' Clients with advanced chronic kidney disease are at risk of fluid retention, which can lead to complications like fluid overload and hypertension. Therefore, it is crucial to instruct the client to limit fluid intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can exacerbate fluid retention and hypertension in clients with CKD. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for clients with CKD who may already have elevated potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while protein intake may need to be adjusted for clients on hemodialysis, the priority in this case is managing fluid intake.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's priority action when preparing this client for surgery?
- A. Ensure the client is NPO before surgery
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels
- C. Administer the client's insulin as scheduled
- D. Teach the client about postoperative care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes are at risk for perioperative complications related to blood glucose fluctuations. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to maintaining proper management before, during, and after surgery. Option A is not the priority action as ensuring NPO status is a standard preoperative procedure for all clients. Option C could be important but is secondary to monitoring blood glucose levels. Option D is important but not the priority during the preoperative phase.
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