Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

3. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
• B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
• C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
• D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.

5. What is the primary purpose of the logrolling technique for turning?

• A. To decrease the risk of back injury by working together.
• B. To maintain straight spinal alignment.
• C. To increase client safety by using two or three people.
• D. To reduce the likelihood of skin damage by turning instead of pulling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To maintain straight spinal alignment. Logrolling is a technique used to carefully turn a client while keeping the spine in a straight line, especially important for those with spinal injuries or after back surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not specifically to decrease the risk of back injury but to ensure safe turning. Choice C is incorrect as the main aim is not to increase client safety by using multiple people but to protect the spine. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of logrolling is not to prevent skin damage but to safeguard the spine during turning.

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