the nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction which symptom requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

2. When asking an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a 69-year-old surgical client to ambulate for the first time, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allowing the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing helps prevent dizziness and falls, especially during their first ambulation post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to take deep breaths when feeling dizzy may not address the underlying cause of the dizziness. Choice C is incorrect as it is unrelated to the task of assisting the client to ambulate for the first time. Choice D is incorrect because knowing how the client feels after sitting in the chair does not address the important step of assisting the client to stand up for the first time.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. The client reports muscle cramps and tingling in the hands. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to identify the cause of these symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle cramps and tingling in clients with chronic renal failure are often associated with hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to identify imbalances and manage symptoms appropriately. Sodium, phosphate, and potassium levels are important in renal failure but are not directly related to the symptoms of muscle cramps and tingling reported by the client.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

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