Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
• C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.

3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

4. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?

• A. Ensure daily follow-up with the healthcare provider
• B. Take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed
• C. Avoid crowds for the first two months after surgery
• D. Return to work in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client is to take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed. This is vital to prevent organ rejection and ensure the success of the transplant. While ensuring daily follow-up with the healthcare provider is important for monitoring progress, avoiding crowds for the first two months after surgery helps reduce the risk of infections but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Returning to work in three months is a consideration but not the most important aspect immediately post-transplant.

5. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?

• A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
• B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
• C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
• D. French toast with butter and syrup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.

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