HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Somnambulism
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Vivid dreams
- D. Daytime sleepiness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.
2. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?
- A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88
- D. Client is unable to verbalize
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.
3. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?
- A. Document the presence in the client’s record.
- B. Apply light pressure over the area.
- C. Apply heat to the area and reassess in 30 minutes.
- D. Apply cold compresses to reduce the redness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.
4. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Low blood pressure
- B. Increased respiratory rate
- C. Normal pupil reaction
- D. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.
5. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?
- A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
- B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
- C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
- D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.
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