Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis and ascites asks about fluid restriction. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Increase the client's fluid intake gradually.
• B. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.
• C. Explain the importance of following a low-sodium diet.
• D. Increase dietary protein to reduce fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.' In clients with cirrhosis and ascites, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen symptoms of liver failure. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake would exacerbate the issue of fluid overload. Option C, while important, is not the best initial response to the client's question about fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as increasing dietary protein does not directly address fluid restriction in clients with cirrhosis and ascites.

2. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Assess for signs of infection.
• B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
• C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
• D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

4. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?

• A. The client has been taking multiple medications
• B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
• C. The client's vital signs are stable
• D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.

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